ANSWER OF NUMBER 2
                          OF
                       31/5/98
       BY Lee Kai-man (Hong Kong)
 
Question:
Prove that for all natural number ,n. a>0 & not equal to 1.
   (1+a^2+.....+a^2n)/(a + a^3+....+a^(2n-1)) > (n+1)/n

ANSWER:
Let f(a)= 1+a^2 +...+a^2n - ( a +a^3+....+a^(2n-1)) for all a
      f'(a)>1
 so, (1+a^2 +...+a^2n)/( a +a^3+....+a^(2n-1))
      > ( 1+a +a^3+....+a^(2n-1))/( a +a^3+....+a^(2n-1))
      > (1+n)/n
 

Any questions about the answer,contact Mr Lee at: kailee@netvigator.com 1