Mark 10:18
by Abu Joshua

"Jesus said to him, 'Why do you call me good? No one is good except one -- God.'"

This text is used again and again by Muslim apologists to 'prove' that this verse indicates that Jesus is not God. Let us breakdown the text into three points:-
 

Muslim Argument

The argument follows the line that by Jesus asking the man the reason for calling him 'good' is in fact a denial of divinity, this coupled with the statement that only God is good therefore reads, "I am not good, only God is good"

This interpretation is used again and again by the Muslim apologists, but does it fit into the context of the surrounding verses and is it the only interpretation that we can put on this passage?
 

A Literal Interpretation

If we re-read the text with the bullet point summary, we find no explicit denial from Jesus that he is the Good teacher, rather he questions the man's motives for using the title, plus an explanation of what the title indicates.

Indeed we could just as easily interpret the text in the following way:-

By the rich man referring to Jesus as 'good', Jesus interprets this as a direct reference to divinity. Jesus then questions the man on his motive for using the title 'Good Teacher', Jesus however does not relinquish the title bestowed upon him, but asks the man to recognise that by using that title he is indeed speaking to God.
 

A Literal and contextual understanding of the passage

If Jesus was to have denied this title, he would have certainly made this clear by relinquishing any such divine attribution straight away, as did his disciples when even the slightest hints of divination were made (Acts 10:26 and 14:11-15). Indeed Jesus assumes the role of the Good Teacher by answering the man's question, and the answer is indeed an even more potent indication of his divinity. If Jesus was trying to somehow steer the man away from divine attribution, Jesus would not have explicitly denied the title, but also answered in such a way as to direct him to following the commands of God and following God as had all the prophets done before him.

Jesus does indeed tell the man to keep the commandments, but in addition to this he says to the man "follow me". It is clear that the one who wishes to receive eternal life requires a "Good Teacher" of who Jesus fits the role perfectly in answering the man's question.
 

Harmonising with the rest of the Gospel

There are indeed two interpretations that can be can be read into the verse. However, we have established that the context of the answer made by Jesus to the man's question does not match in with the Muslim apologist's interpretation. Indeed let us return to the text once more to see how this possibly cannot be a denial of divinity, but rather a claim to Jesus Chirst being God.

In the verse, the whole crux of the issue was the use of the adjective that was being used. The bone of contention was the use of the word good, Jesus in responding to the rich man says, "only God is good". This statement is fact and requires no interpretation as is speaks quite clearly for itself.

Let us consider the rest of Jesus' teaching. By examining the Gospels, Jesus does not claim to be in anyway bad, or lacking of the title of Good. Rather Jesus' own lips proclaimed the following of himself:

"I am the Good Shepherd" John 10:11

Indeed the title Shepherd is also attributed to God in the Bible, Psalm 23:1, Ezekiel 34:11-16, Jeremiah 23:3.

In concluding, rather than Jesus denying his divinity, we find that the response given to the rich man supports the continuing theme throughout the gospels, that Jesus Christ is indeed God. We not only see this in context of the rest of Jesus' discourse with the rich man, but also in the context of the whole Gospel.

By Abu Joshua [mail]
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