101 QUESTIONS ABOUT CHRISTIANITY

(The following are answers to common questions from those who aren't familiar with the Holy Bible.
The questions have been submitted by Saleem Ahmad in The Review of Religions, Vol. LXXXVIII, no.4, April, 1993.)

1. If Jesus's mission was to the lost sheep of Israel, why was it confined to Palestine where only two of the original tribes had settled? Did that mean that Jesus had failed in his mission?

This question is assuming that only two of the original tribes had settled in Palestine. Where is this information from? People from all twelve tribes settled in Palestine.

2. Why should Jesus specifically forbid, on the one hand, preaching the Gospel to the Gentiles (Matthew 7:6, 15:24, 26) and yet on the other, tell the disciples to teach all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost? (Matthew 28:19)

Matthew 7:6 does not discuss the matter of preaching to Gentiles; it simply states that precious things should not be given to those who will abuse them. Now concerning the question, this is difficult for many to understand. Jesus' main priority was to preach to the Jews. But as we see here, there were non-Jews that were among those who listened. Jesus' statement in Matt. 15:24 was a test of her faith. We see in the Old Testament that God purposed to make his character known to the world by a nation, the Jews, but he was always merciful to Gentiles who admitted their sin and chose to live under the system of sacrifice that he had given. Some examples of these are Rahab and Ruth.

When Jesus gave the exhortation in Matthew 28:19, it was the time that had been set from eternity past that he would purposefully extend his mercy to Gentiles. This was demonstrated by the fact that the curtain in the temple was torn from top to bottom. (Matt. 27:51) This curtain was the object that kept the ordinary person from seeing the glory of God. If someone would see God's glory without going through the proper procedures, they would automatically die. This showed that he no longer lived in the temple, but in the lives of people. It also showed that the sacrifices were obsolete, the sacrifice of Jesus was the final sacrifice needed.

3. Why did Jesus prohibit the Gospel from being preached to the Gentiles during his ministry (Matthew 10:5, 7:6, 15:24-26) but after his 'resurrection' tell them to preach the Gospel to the whole world? (Mark 16:15)

If Jesus really had made the latter statement, why was there such a fierce debate within the early Church (and particularly between Peter and Paul) as to whether the Gospel should be preached to the Gentiles? (Acts 15:6-30)

If you read carefully, you will notice that the dispute was not over whether Gentiles could be saved but whether Gentiles needed to become Jews first, by means of circumcision. (Acts 15:1) Paul and Barnabas were stating that Gentiles did not have to become Jews first. Peter agreed with them by telling how God had put his Spirit within Gentiles in the same way as he did with the Jews. (see Acts 10) James also confirmed that what Paul and Peter were saying agreed with what the Prophets had said as well.(Acts 15:13-19)

4. Out of all the signs that Jesus could have given about himself, he chose to give the sign of Jonah: This generation is an evil generation; it seeks a sign but no sign shall be given to it except the sign of Jonah. (Luke 11:29, Matthew 12:39, Matthew 16) Jonah was swallowed alive by a whale and remained in its belly alive for three days. For Jesus to have properly fulfilled the prophecy, he would need to enter the tomb alive and come out alive. Why should Jesus give this, of all signs, if he was to die and be resurrected?

You will notice that Matt 12:40 says, "as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of a huge fish, so the Son of Man will be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." The "three days and three nights" is the common factor which explains how Jesus would be like Jonah.

5. If Jesus's message was for the whole of mankind, why did he forbid his disciples to preach to the Gentiles? (Matthew 10:5-6)

(See the answers for questions 3 and 4.)

6. When Jesus was asked what the only way was to true salvation, he replied: keep the Commandments (Matthew 19:17). The first of the Commandments was to believe in the Oneness of God (Exodus 20:3). Why did Jesus answer so if he believed in and was part of the Trinity? Why did he not refer to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost?

Jesus is fully justified in answering in this way because the Oneness of God does not conflict with the teaching about the plurality of the One God, which in theological circles is most often referred to as the Trinity. We as humans learn best by a combination of hearing and seeing. Jesus did not need to fully explain every doctrine every time the discussion came up. Sometimes he allowed people to observe and come to the unmistakable conclusion themselves. John chapter 10 is a good portion to read, specifically John 10:38. He didn't tell us why he did not refer to the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. To insist that he should have, would be telling God what he should have told his prophet and therefore, is sin.

7. Jesus said that he had not come to change the Law of Moses (Matthew 5:17). The Law of Moses teaches that there is one God (Exodus 20:3). If Jesus was introducing the concept of Trinity, why did he not say that he was changing the Law of Moses or introducing a different understanding of it?

To introduce a fuller understanding of the Law of Moses is not changing the Law of Moses. The concept of the Trinity neither changes or gives a different understanding of the Law of Moses. The concept of the Trinity as found in the New Testament is also evident in the Old Testament. Genesis 1:2 refers to the Spirit of God. In Genesis 1:26 God says, 'Let us make man in our image, in our likeness . . . .' This suggests a plurality of some kind. Some would say this is a "royal we" but according to research, there is no evidence of this in the language of that day. The Angel of the LORD appeared to people in Old Testament times. This Angel of the |LORD was not the ordinary angel because no other angel ever received the worship that is only due to God. If he would have received worship he could not have been an angel of the LORD; he would have been an angel of Satan. The angel of the LORD is a manifestation of the Spirit of God in human form.

8. Jesus prophesied that men of his generation would not pass away without witnessing his second coming and the falling of stars (Mark 9:1, 13:30). Why was this prophecy unfulfilled? Why was it that Jesus did not return within the lifetime of his generation?

Mark 9:1 and Mark 13:30 are talking about two different things. Mark 9:1 says, "And he said to them, 'I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the kingdom of God come with power.' The kingdom of God is not a particular nation, but it is all the people of God wherever they may be. The fulfillment of this prophecy occurred at Pentecost as referred to in Acts chapter 2. This was also prophesied in Acts 1:8 as well as a number of places in the Old Testament. (See Joel 2:28-29)

Mark 13:30 says, 'I tell you the truth, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened.' The key word here is "generation." It comes from the Greek word, genea. It "primarily signifies a begetting, or birth; then that which has been begotten, a family; or successive members of a genealogy . . . or of a race of people. . . ." Here it refers to a race of people.

9. Why did Jesus forbid the disciples from calling people fools yet called the Jewish leaders with names like vipers and children of adultery? Is it conceivable that a Divine Being would behave in this way?

Matthew 5:22 suggests that we are not to call someone a fool. The meaning of "fool" here is not just a "silly" person, but one who has a "corrupt heart and character." We are not to call someone a fool because we do not know the full condition of that man's heart. We notice that in James 5:9 it says, "Don't grumble against each other, brothers, or you will be judged. The Judge is standing at the door!" James 4:11 says, "Brothers, do not slander one another, Anyone who speaks against his brother or judges him speaks against the law and judges it. When you judge the law, you are not keeping it, but sitting in judgment on it. There is only one Lawgiver and Judge, the one who is able to save and destroy. But you--who are you to judge your neighbour?"

God, however, see the heart for what it is. I Samuel 16:7b says, 'The LORD does not look at the things man looks at. Man looks at the outward appearance, but the LORD looks on the heart.' Jesus claimed to be equal with God and worthy of being the judge. This is supported by Acts 17:31, 'For he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice by the man he has appointed. He has given proof of this to all men by raising him from the dead.' Therefore, he had the right to call the Jewish leaders "vipers" and "children of adultery" because he knew their hearts and judged them rightly.

10. According to Luke, when the Jews tried Jesus they asked him Are you the son of God? Jesus replied you say that I am (Luke 22:70) which could mean: you say that I am but I do not. If his divinity was something he came to tell the world, why did he not plainly say yes instead of couching his answer in ambiguous terms?

If we simply take Jesus' reply in English without considering any of the context around the verse, it is possible to be in doubt concerning his answer. But if we look at the response of the Jewish leaders in the next verse there is no doubt to the meaning of Jesus' statement. If he didn't claim to be the Son of God, they would have no grounds upon which to put him to death. But since he did claim to be the Son of God, they thought he was guilty of blasphemy (claiming to be equal with God) and wanted to kill him.

11. In the Old Testament, the term Son of God was applied to David (Psalms 89:27), the nation of Israel (Exodus 4:22), the children of Israel (Psalms 82:6), and Solomon (1 Chronicles 22:10). Jesus also used it for the peacemakers (Matthew 5:9). If Jesus was referring to himself as the Son of God in the literal sense, why did he not make it clear that he was differentiating between a symbolic reference and a literal meaning of the term?

It is stated correctly that the term Son of God or sons of God is used for David, the nation of Israel, the children of Israel, Solomon, and peacemakers. It is also used for anyone who believes on Jesus. John 1:12-13 says, "Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God -- children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God." The question suggests that if Jesus was using the literal sense when referring to himself, then he was using a symbolic sense when referring to others. This is not correct. The spiritual sense is used in each instance. The phrase "son of " refers to the character of the person being referred to. (See a dictionary for a full definition.) The term son of God simply meant that the Spirit of God dwelt in that person. We notice in John 3:16 that Jesus is referred to as the "one and only Son." One translation translates it as the "only begotten Son." The word "only" has several meanings. It also means "unique" or "beloved". The word "begotten" is said by some to be used only in the physical sense, but this again is not true. The word "begotten" means "to be caused to exist." It has a spiritual, metaphorical meaning other places in the Bible. (1 Corinthians 4:17). Jesus is not a son of God, but The Son of God. The Spirit of God which God caused to dwell in his body, dwelt in him in a unique way unlike any other "son of God." By reading about his miracles and God's own testimony about him, we come to know how unique he is.

12. Jesus was the Messiah, the fulfillment of Old Testament prophecies. He frequently made reference to himself as the suffering servant foretold in the Book of Isaiah (Matthew 8:17 & Isaiah 53:4; Luke 2:30 & Isaiah 52:10; Luke 22:37 & Isaiah 53:12). The Messiah of the Old Testament was, however, promised by God that he would not be killed (Psalms 34:19, Isaiah 53:10). How was it, therefore, that the Jews had succeeded in killing the Messiah if Jesus died on the cross?

In regard to Psalm 34:19, what we refer to as a trouble, may not be what God refers to as a trouble. Isaiah 53:10 supports clearly what the rest of the Bible teaches. Jesus suffered, died and was resurrected. Because he lives today he can fulfill the rest of this verse, even though he has suffered to point of death. God never promised that his Messiah would not be killed. Look at Isaiah 52:15. In the days of the prophets objects were made holy by being sprinkled by the blood of an acceptable sacrifice. What had to be done to a lamb before its blood could be used? The answer to this question will give the answer to whether or not Jesus died.

13. If Jesus knew that Judas was going to betray him, why did he continue to permit him as a disciple? Why did he not tell the other disciples so that Judas could be excluded from his closest circle of followers?

I don't know why Jesus allowed him to continue on as a disciple and I don't know of any indication in scripture to tell us either. However, I do know that it was not threatening to Jesus to have Judas in his close group. That shows me that Jesus was totally confident in the sovereign purposes of God. It also shows the extent of his love toward sinners. Knowing that Jesus asked us to love our enemies, what better example could we ask for than for Jesus to love a person who he knew would betray him.

14. If Jesus knew that one of his disciples would betray him, why should he say that all twelve disciples would sit upon twelve thrones? (Matthew 19:28)

The best answer to this question is that we note the words "you who have followed me . . . ." If we look at Acts 1:15-26, we see that the person that was chosen to replace Judas was Matthias. Notice the qualifications in verses 21 and 22 that had to be met in the one they chose. According to these qualifications, Matthias could be included as one of "you who have followed me."

15. If Jesus knew that he was to die on the cross, why did he spend all night praying in the Garden of Gethsemane seeking deliverance: Father if it is possible may this cup be taken from me? (Matthew 26:39)

What do you think this "cup" is? It is the cup of God's wrath upon mankind for the sin of all mankind. From all eternity Jesus had been in perfect union with God, his Father. Now the time had come for him to bear the sins of all mankind. Because of our sin which he chose to take upon himself, he would be forsaken by God for a time. He did this so that we would not have to be forsaken by God. Having fully experienced perfect union with God, and knowing fully what it meant to be separated from God, this was a horrific weight to bear. It effected his human emotions greatly. Yet in all this, we notice that he prayed not according to his human emotions, but according to the will of his Father, which was the will of his Spirit as well. Hebrews 7:27b says, "He sacrificed for their sins once for all when he offered himself." This suggests a willing sacrifice. (This concept is a very difficult one for the human mind to understand. The best we can do is to know what the scriptures say about this and then ask the Lord to convince us of its truth. This is difficult until we come to grips with the fact that we are sinners separated from God, and that the only way to be forgiven and enjoy the peace of God is to come to him through the way he provided--the sacrifice of Jesus Christ on the cross. When the foundation is built correctly, the house is easy to construct.)

16. Jesus had taught that man's prayers are answered (Matthew 21:22). Why was not Jesus's prayer answered in the Garden of Gethsemane? What effect would this incident have on the faith of his disciples and followers to see that a prayer had not been answered contrary to what Jesus had taught?

His prayer was answered. In our prayers we are encouraged to express our human weaknesses to God. Jesus did this as well. But his prayer was that the will of his Father might be done. He had no earthly father, only a heavenly Father. Notice that he said, 'if it is possible' and 'yet not as I will, but as you will.' His prayer was answered. It was not possible any other way, and God's will was done!

17. If Jesus believed that his prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane would not be heard, why did he tell his disciples earlier that prayers are answered?: Would any of you who are fathers give your son a stone when he asked for bread (Matthew 7:9-10) which means that God hears the prayers of man more than a father answers the wishes of his children and Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and it will be opened to you. And whatever you ask in your prayers, you will receive, if you have faith. (Matthew 21:22; John 11:41,42)

(This question is answered in number 16)

18. If Jesus's prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane was not to be heard, why was it something that he wanted the disciples to witness? If the prayer was not to be heard, what useful purpose does this story serve?

(Again, his prayer was heard. See number 16 for the answer.)

19. Why should Matthew, Mark and Luke all report (Matthew 26:39, Mark 14:36, Luke 22:42) that Jesus asked for the cup of suffering to be passed if possible yet John (John 18:11) reports that Jesus hastened for the crucifixion saying shall I not drink the cup the Father hath given me?

John 21:25 says, "Jesus did many other things as well. If everyone of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written." None of the four gospels are a full account of all that Jesus did. Jesus truly asked that if possible the cup be taken from him. Having asked three times, that the will of his Father be done and being convinced of that will, he did as is written in Hebrews 12:2, ". . .who for the joy set before him endured the cross, scorning its shame, and sat down at the right hand of the throne of God."

20. Why did Pontius Pilate just simply ignore his wife's plea to have nothing to do with Jesus on account of her bad dream? (Matthew 27:19) If the very mission of Jesus was to suffer death, why should God Almighty show a dream to Pilate's wife which would cause her to try and persuade her husband to release Jesus? Would not that appear to counter God's own plan?

What all of these events show is that God is supreme. All events are under his control. Nothing can foil his plans. This gives us assurance that when we trust him for our forgiveness of sins through Jesus Christ, nothing will hinder him from fulfilling his promises to us. The darker the night, the brighter the light.

21. If Pilate really wanted Jesus to die on the cross, why would he fix the crucifixion on a Friday evening knowing that the Jews would have to take him down before Sabbath and that such a little time on the cross was insufficient for him to die?

It didn't matter to Pilate whether Jesus died on the cross or not. He wanted to please the Jews. The Jews were pressuring him to put Jesus to death. He feared that if he did not do so soon, he would have a riot in his city, and that would not make him look good. You will remember that the legs of the other two men who were crucified beside him, were broken. This was done to hasten their death. Jesus, however, was already dead. This was proved by the mixture of blood and water that came out of his side. The reason for this was the great suffering that he had already suffered.

22. If Jesus knew all along that he was destined to be crucified to death (indeed if that was his purpose in life), why did he exclaim on the cross Eli, Eli Lama Sabachthani meaning my God my God why hast thou forsaken me? (Matthew 27:46)

He knew he would die on the cross. This was a prophecy for the benefit of the people who were gathered around as well as for you and me. If you look at Psalm 22, these are the words that begin this psalm. At that time the Psalms did not have numbers as they have today. The way that people referred to a psalm was to quote the beginning phrase. Then those who were listening would know what he was referring to. If you read this psalm carefully you will notice that it describes what was happening to him on the cross. Starting in verse 19, it also describes the victory that would result because of his death. When we understand that, it gives us a great assurance in this life as well as the next.

23. If Jesus was about to die, how was he able to say in a clear loud and audible voice that he was thirsty? (John 19:28)

There are two answers that are sufficient to explain this question. First, all things are possible with God. Second, it is a proven medical fact that many times right before a person dies, he receives a burst of energy.

24. Why are Jesus's words on the cross: Eli, Eli Lama Sabachthani (Matthew 27:46) reported in their original Aramaic form? Could it be that Jesus's helpless cry left such a vivid impression of a man seemingly bereft of hope that anyone who heard them would remember the exact words?

Jesus' statement here is a quote from the Old Testament scriptures. (The beginning of Psalm 22.) He was feeling the weight of the sins of mankind but he was not without hope. He was reminding the Jews of what the scriptures said. The last part of this Psalm actually speaks of the victory that he was about to experience. Since Jesus was quoting from the Jewish scriptures, he would have used the Aramaic because that was the language that the common Jewish person would be most familiar with.

25. Vinegar is often considered to have a stimulating effect, rather similar to smelling salts. Why, in Jesus's case, did it suddenly lead to his death? (John 19:29, 30)

The question suggests that the vinegar caused Jesus' death. John 19:29 says, "When he had received the drink, Jesus said, 'It is finished.' With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit." The word "when" refers to the time and not to the cause. He gave up his own spirit.

26. How could an onlooker tell the difference between a man on the cross who had died and a man who had fainted (Mark 15:39) particularly when it is reported that it was dark at that time? (Mark 15:33, Matthew 27:45, Luke 23:44)

This "onlooker" was a centurion (a Roman officer who was in charge of around 100 soldiers). It is very likely that he had been involved with other crucifixions before, and would be acquainted with the signs of death. However, we do not know this for sure. Even though it was dark, the people in that day had lighting equipment. John 18:3 records these soldiers as having "torches and lanterns." But still, Jesus death was not left to our imagination, nor to the imagination of the centurion. His side was pierced even though they saw he was dead. The flow of blood and water was evidence that he had died. (See Journal of the American Medical Association (JAMA), March 21, Ó 1986, Vol. 225, No. 11, "On the Physical Death of Jesus Christ" by William D. Edwards, M.D; J. Gabel, MDiv; Floyd E. Hosmer, MS, AMI, p. 1463.)

27. If Jesus was dead when he was removed from the cross, why did his body release blood and water, since blood does not flow at all from a dead body? (John 19:34)

It is incorrect to state that blood does not flow at all from a dead body. The medical evidence cited in the above article published in one of the leading medical journals in the medical world disproves this.

28. Why did Jesus die before the other two who were crucified with him even though the legs of the other two were broken to hasten death? (John 19:32)

There are a few reasons. First, he had the weight of the guilt of your and my sins as well as the whole world upon himself. Second, he had been kept awake all night without sleep, and subjected to questioning. Third, he had been physically struck, beaten and flogged. (Please read up on Roman style floggings.) Fourth, God was in control. When he gives his word, he fulfills it. It was prophesied in Psalm 34:20 and Zechariah 12:10.

29. It is reported that dead saints came out of their graves and made themselves known to many (Matthew 27:52). When the Jews saw this, why did they not immediately profess faith in Jesus? Where did these saints go? Who did they see? Why is there no account of this story elsewhere other than in Matthew's Gospel?

Can we account for another person's unbelief? They would have had to humble themselves and admit that they were wrong, which a lot of people find hard to do. Concerning the people who came out of the tombs, there is no other teaching on that.

30 If the above story of saints rising from the dead is not based on an actual historical event, what other statements are there in the Gospels which are not based on actual historical facts?

This account is an historical event. To say that it isn't is to discount the accuracy of the Bible. To say so without any proof is certainly to dishonour and blaspheme God.

31. Jesus said that the killing of prophets ended with the killing of Zacharias (Matthew 23:35-36). How was it, therefore, that the Jews had succeeded in killing another prophet?

Jesus here is saying that the teachers of the law and the Pharisees would be as guilty as those who killed the righteous prophets from Abel to Zechariah (all those recorded in the Jewish scriptures) because of what they would do to the prophets, wise men, and teachers that God was sending them. It says in Matthew 23:34, "Therefore I am sending you prophets and wise men and teachers. Some of them you will kill and crucify; others you will flog in your synagogues and pursue from town to town." Jesus was not saying that the killing of the prophets had ended, he was saying that there would be more like there had been in the past. Furthermore, in Matthew 11:9 Jesus refers to John the Baptist as a prophet. By this time John the Baptist had been put to death. It would have been foolish for Jesus to say that all the killing of the prophets had ended with Zechariah. He would have contradicted himself.

32. Crucifixion was meant to be an accursed death (Deuteronomy 21:23). If Jesus was crucified, did that mean he also suffered an accursed death?

The reason why Jesus suffered an accursed death was because he took upon himself your sin and mine as well as the sins of the whole world. Have you put your faith in this?

33. Why was it that a Roman soldier was so readily prepared to allow Joseph (a subjected citizen) to take down Jesus's body from the cross without checking and without Joseph having any apparent lawful authority?

Please read John 19:38-42 for the explanation.

34. Why is there is no direct account by Joseph of Arimathea or Nicodemus that Jesus was dead when he was taken down from the cross? Surely, this eye-witness account would have settled the matter beyond dispute?

There was no dispute among the eyewitnesses about whether Jesus died. The only dispute at the time was whether he was raised from the dead. When the Jews had to make up a story about the disappearance of Jesus' body, they did not say he didn't die, everyone knew he died. Instead they had to pay people to say that his disciples had come and stolen his body. (Matthew 28:11-15) Only since then, there have been disputes over who was responsible for his death and what his death accomplished.

35. Why should Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus take so much trouble to recover the body of Jesus when this would have been the duty of the nearest relative?

There is no explanation except that this event fulfills the prophecy in Isaiah 53:9, which says, "He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death, though he had done no violence, nor was any deceit in his mouth."

36. Why did Pilate agree to release the 'body' to Joseph of Arimathea (a known Jew and follower of Jesus) if he was not sympathetic to Jesus?

Pilate was sympathetic to Jesus. (Please read John 19:1-22.)

37. Crucifixion was a slow death. It usually lasted several days. Death followed from exhaustion, inability to respire properly as a result of being in an upright position or attacks by wild animals. Why did Jesus, who was a fit and healthy man used to walking the countryside for long distances, die so quickly in only a matter of a few hours?

This question is an important one. It is answered in number 28.

38. If Jesus really was expected to die in such a short time, why did Pilate express surprise at Jesus's death? (Mark 15:42-44)

The scriptures never say that Jesus was "expected to die in such a short time," but when we understand the situation he was in, it is easy to understand why he did die so quickly. Pilate was rightly surprised because he did not understand that Jesus had taken upon himself the sin of mankind.

39. Why would the Jews bribe the soldiers to say that Jesus's disciples had stolen the corpse whilst they (the soldiers) were asleep? If the soldiers had truly related this story, they might have been asked how they knew that the disciples had stolen the corpse if they were asleep?

The main concern was that the people didn't think he had done another miracle. It wasn't so important if they knew for sure what happened. If we look at the events from their viewpoint, it is easy to see that that was the most viable option. There is something about death that makes it seem final. After all, Jesus' close disciples didn't fully realize what had happened until after they saw for themselves the empty tomb, the angels and Jesus himself.

40. Why did the Jews not go and check the tomb themselves? They had put much effort into getting Jesus crucified. A friend of Jesus had been allowed to take the body away. Why did they not visit the tomb before Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Jesus did?

It is impossible for us to know why the Jews did everything they did. We must remember though, that this all happened during their special Passover feast. There were regulations about what they could and couldn't do on the Sabbath and it was a busy time.

With the Roman guard watching their "prisoner" and under the threat of possible death if their "prisoner" escaped, the Jews really had no need to worry if Jesus was simply an ordinary human being. It is here where they miscalculated.

41. Why did Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus not stay with Jesus in the tomb after taking down his body from the cross to witness the resurrection? Jesus had apparently told his followers that he would die and rise after three days. (Matthew 16:21, 17:23, 20:17-19) This report had even reached the Jews (Matthew 27:63). Why did not Joseph and Nicodemus remain with Jesus to witness the event?

As Jews they had responsibilities to their families to observe the Passover feast. If they believed he would rise from the dead as he said, then I'm sure they could trust God with the outcome.

42. Did the Jews really believe that Jesus had died? If so, why did they ask the Romans for a guard to be placed outside the sepulcher? Matthew says the Jews explained this by saying that Jesus's disciples could spread false rumors about him rising from the dead. However, if the Jews really believed this to be the reason for the request, why could they not have asked the disciples to produce the risen Christ as proof? If the disciples had then done so, the Jews could then presumably rearrest Jesus.

The answers to the first two questions are found in Matthew 27:62-66. The Jewish leaders knew that Jesus rose from the dead. They didn't want the people to find out, so they had the rumors spread. Even if they had asked the disciples to produce the body of Jesus, Jesus would have revealled himself to whom he chose. Knowing Jesus had risen from the dead, why would the Jewish leaders want to ask for his body again and run the risk of being made to look foolish, again?

43. Why were the Roman authorities so disinterested about the apparent removal of the body if this is what the Jews were claiming?

We don't have a specific answer in the scriptures, but we do know the power of the LORD. Proverbs 21:1 says, "The king's heart is in the hand of the LORD; he directs it like a watercourse wherever he pleases." Although we have many questions, it is impossible to know all the ways of our Almighty God. We do know that at other times when the Roman officials perceived something to be a religious difference between the Jews they let them sort it out unless it got out of hand.

44. Why was the stone moved from the tomb (Matthew 28:2) if it was a supernatural rising?

Should we question what God has decreed? From our human standpoint, if the stone is removed, wouldn't that make it easier for the people to see the evidence?

45. When Mary Magdalene and Mary the Mother of Jesus saw him, he was wearing gardener's clothing (John 20:15). Where did Jesus get these clothes from? His own clothes had been taken by the soldiers who had divided them drawing lots (John 19:23). It was not through Joseph of Arimathea or Nicodemus because they are only reported of having taken in herbs, aloes and a linen shroud (John 19:39, 40). What was the significance of Jesus wearing gardener's clothing (as opposed to normal clothing)? Was it meant to be a disguise? If so, for what purpose?

Again, should we question the actions of God? Having risen from the dead, it is a small matter to get the proper clothing.

46. Why were the women who visited the tomb terrified if Jesus was dead (Mark 16:8)? What did they have to be terrified of if the Jews had succeeded in killing Jesus?

Jesus wasn't dead. They were afraid, trembling, and bewildered concerning the fact that he was alive.

47. If Jesus could conquer death and rise from the dead, why did he fear seeing the Jews after the crucifixion? particularly as death had no more power over him? (Romans 6:9)

It is true that death had no more power over him. Where does it say that he feared seeing the Jews after the crucifixion? It doesn't say that anywhere.

48. Why did Jesus disguise himself after the resurrection and appear only to the disciples? Surely, this was the great manifestation of his power and the fulfillment of the purpose of his creation. What was the purpose in keeping it all a secret now?

It is true that this was a very important event. The questions seem to imply that he should have appeared to more men than he did. Have we taken the place of God, to suggest what he should have done? This is very wrong. (Please read Acts 1:1-11; John 20 and 21; Luke 24 and I Corinthians 15:1-11.) God gave plenty of evidence for Jesus' resurrection.

49. If Jesus was the risen Christ, why did he meet his disciples behind closed doors and not in the open as he used to? (John 20:19)

He met them where they were at; he does the same for us today. The occasion in John 20:19 was only one occasion. He met them other places as well. (See the references in question 48.)

50. How many times did Jesus ascend to Heaven? Luke (23:43) states that Jesus told one of those crucified with him that he would be in Heaven that day with him. Does that mean that Jesus went up to Heaven after his death, came back to earth and then ascended to Heaven once more? According to John there appears to be yet another Ascension. When Mary Magdalene asked to touch him, Jesus forbade her saying that he had not yet ascended to the Father (John 20:17). Later Jesus appears to the disciples and actually invites Thomas to touch him, (John 20:27) which must mean that Jesus had ascended and returned. Thus, is it possible that there were three Ascensions?

An understanding of who Jesus--God come in the flesh--was will help us to understand these verses. Jesus was more than a human body and human spirit. He was the one who had been promised. He was unique in that there was a special union of the Spirit of God with a human body. After Jesus resurrection, he received a glorified body. This was a body of flesh and bones, but different than ours. Each believer will receive one of these one the day of resurrection. Luke 24:50-53 records the ascension of Jesus in his glorified body. (It may be helpful to read I Corinthians 15:35-58 as well.) Now, while his body was in the tomb, where was his spirit? He told the thief that he would be with him in paradise that day. This is referring to his spirit. When Jesus was talking with Mary Magdalene, he was referring to his bodily ascension. It is not right to say that Jesus must have ascended bodily into heaven between the times he met Mary Magdalene and Thomas. We don't know all the reasons why Jesus told Mary Magdalene not to touch him. He surely knew things about her that we don't. The reason why he asked Thomas to put his hand in his side and into the nail prints on his hands was to strengthen Thomas' faith.

Similar accounts are recorded elsewhere. We know that in Matthew 12:15-21, Jesus warned the people not to make him known, but in Matthew 28:10, Jesus invited others to see him. God is concerned about his timing and about individual people. That's how we know we can trust him.

51. If Jesus was God and Jesus was dead for three days, does that mean also that God (heaven forbid) was also dead for three days?

When Jesus died, he said, "Father into your hands I commit my spirit." God the Father received his own spirit that had been in Jesus Christ. God could not be dead to do this. Without the spirit, Jesus was just a human body. Warning: If we fail to see that truth that God is ONE God that has plurality, yet in perfect unity, then we will be confused about many things God has revealled.

52. Why is it that there is not a single direct account of Jesus's life by any of the twelve disciples or anyone who knew him personally? Can the word of those who did not know him or have the opportunity to hear him personally vouch for the accuracy of some of the reported remarks?

There are two accounts of Jesus' life by disciples who knew him personally. Matthew was a disciple of Jesus Christ. The account of Jesus calling him to be a disciple is found in Matthew 9:9-13, Mark 2:13-17, Luke 5:27-32. Notice that he had two names, Matthew and Levi. His name is also found in the list of disciples in Matthew 10:2-4, Mark 3:13-19, Luke 6:12-16. John also refers to the twelve disciples in John 6:60-71. John was also a disciple of Jesus. His name is mentioned many times in all of the gospels. He is referred to as "the one Jesus loved" in John 20:2 and John 13:23-24, John 19:25-27 and John 21:20-25. John was with him during the transfiguration in Luke 9:28-36. He was one of the first of Jesus' disciples. (Luke 5:10) John was one of those closest to Jesus' while he was praying before his crucifixion. (Matthew 26:36-39)

Mark is said to be a companion of Peter, who was a very close disciple of Jesus.

Luke was a companion of Paul, who had a vision of Jesus (Acts 9) and taught by revelation of Jesus Christ. (Galatians 1:11-24) He also had personal contact with the disciples. (Luke 1:1-4)

53. How was it that the Gospel writers were able to report accurately Jesus's words, without committing them to memory or putting them on paper, some thirty to thirty-five years after his death before the first Gospel was written? Furthermore, given that:

(a) Those writing the Gospels did not hear the words directly from Jesus and it cannot, therefore, be said that the words left a lasting impression.

(b) They would have been passed on by word of mouth and therefore risked personal comment being added.

(c) There is no written record of Jesus's words in Aramaic (his spoken language) thus necessitating a translation at some stage. In the light of this, what weight can be placed on the reliability of some of the reported speeches? (Note this question does not relate to stories or parables since these can be more easily remembered.)

We do not have any written record that the disciples committed these events to memory or wrote them down. However to say that they didn't, is not right. We do know that Jesus made a promise to the disciples that he would sent his Holy Spirit to remind them of everything he said to them. (John 14:15-27)

a. Remember that two of the writers did hear the words directly from Jesus and two of the writers were close companions of disciples who heard the words of Jesus.

b. God had promised to protect his word. Is he not all-powerful and capable to fulfill his word?

c. Most likely Jesus knew three languages, Hebrew Aramaic and Greek. Hebrew was the language of the scriptures and was used in religious life. Aramaic was spoken in the homes and everyday life. Greek had been the official language of the region for about 100 years at the time of Jesus Christ. Even in the Greek New Testament there are words and phrases in Aramaic.

The Qur'an too claims to report accurately the words of Jesus, but they are written in Arabic and not in Aramaic. Can the same question be asked about it?

54. Why is it that Mark (the first written Gospel) is the shortest account when one would expect it to be the longest? Did the memories of later authors (e.g. John - written some 30-50 years later) became clearer with the passage of time?

Why would a person expect Mark to be the longest gospel? As we have seen in John 14:15-27 the content of the gospels are not dependent on human memories but on the promise of God.

55. If the Gospels are the word of God and the authors of the Gospels were divinely inspired, why are there so many contradictions in them? For example, why should God tell Mark that it was the third hour when Jesus was crucified (Mark 19:14) but tell John it was the sixth hour? (John 19:14). Why should God tell Matthew and Mark that the two who were crucified with Jesus reviled him (Matthew 27:44, Mark 15:32) but tell Luke that Jesus told one of them that he would be rewarded by being in Heaven with him that day? (Luke 23:39, 43) Why should God tell Matthew that the first ones to visit the sepulchre after the crucifixion were Mary Magdalene and the 'other' Mary (Matthew 28:1) but tell Luke it was Mary Magdalene, Joanna, Mary the Mother of James and the other women (Luke 24:10) and tell John that it was only Mary Magdalene? (John 20:1)

This is not a contradiction. It may appear to be a contradiction, but on a closer look we will see the answer to the problem. First, a correction, the reference in question is not in Mark 19:24, but in Mark 15:25. Second, we must look at all the verses from all of the gospels that refer to the times of Jesus' trial and crucifixion.(I have recorded them below.) As you will see, Jesus was tried by the Jewish leaders very early in the morning. All of the gospels refer to this and agree on this. Then he was turned over to Pilate. When he was in the hands of Pilate, John records that it was the sixth hour. History tells us that the Roman day started at midnight, so the sixth hour was at 6 a.m. in the morning. When John recorded this time, Jesus was under the control of the Romans. This is a very good reason for the time to be expressed according to the Roman time system. This also agrees with the other writers who mention that it was early in the morning and at daybreak. Mark records that Jesus was crucified at the third hour. This is obviously using the Jewish time system. This occurred three hours after Jesus was in the hands of Pilate. Three hours after Jesus was crucified on the cross, darkness came over the land. This was the sixth hour according to the Jewish time system. There was darkness over the land until the ninth hour when Jesus gave up his spirit. This also is in accordance with the Jewish time system. With a careful look at what is written we realize that there is no contradiction.

"Very early in the morning, the chief priest, with the elders, the teachers of the law and the whole Sanhedrin, reached a decision. They bound Jesus, led him away and turned him over to Pilate." (Mark 15:1)

"It was the third hour when they crucified him." (Mark 15:25)

"At the sixth hour darkness came over the whole land until the ninth hour. And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice. . . With a loud voice Jesus breathed his last." (Mark 15:33,37)

"Early in the morning, all the chief priests and the elders of the people came to the decision to put Jesus to death. They bound him, led him away and handed him over to Pilate, the governor." (Matthew 27:1-2)

"From the sixth hour until the ninth hour darkness came over all the land. About the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice. . . And when Jesus had cried out again in a loud voice, he gave up his spirit."

"At daybreak the council of the elders of the people, both the chief priests and the teachers of the law, met together, and Jesus was led before them. Then the whole assembly rose and led him off to Pilate." (Luke 22:66, Luke 23:1)

"It was now about the sixth hour, and darkness came over the whole land until the ninth hour. . . ." (Luke 23:44)

"Then the Jews led Jesus from Caiaphas to the palace of the Roman governor, By now it was early morning. . . . It was the day of Preparation of Passover Week, about the sixth hour. Finally Pilate handed him over to them to be crucified." (John 18:28; 19:14,16)

Both of the two crucified with Jesus did revile him. One however repented of this and was promised eternal life. Even the Roman centurion who was in charge of the crucifixion and therefore with Jesus during this great trial in his life, saw the quality of his life and said, "Surely this was a righteous man." (Luke 23:47) Mark also records, "And when the centurion, who stood there in front of Jesus, heard his cry and say how he died, he said, 'Surely this man was the Son of God!' (Mark 15:39) This man who was hardened to cruel deaths, was touched when he saw the character of God in such abundance on one man. Matthew records, "when the centurion and those with him who were guarding Jesus saw the earthquake and all that had happened, they were terrified, and exclaimed, "Surely he was the Son of God!" (Matthew 27:54)

You will notice that the accounts of the different women who visited the tomb, do not contradict each other. Mary Magdalene went to the tomb along with Salome, Joanna, "the other Mary," and other women. "The other Mary" could very possibly be the same person as "Mary the mother of James." (In most cultures this type of thing occurs where people are referred to by different names depending on the situation, the relationship of the person involved and as a matter of preference. For example, Simon Peter was known as Simon, Peter and Cephas.) In John's account, he is specifically focusing on the events surrounding Mary Magdalene from the first verse of chapter twenty to the eighteenth verse. This is the reason why the other women are not mentioned.

56. Why is it that there is so much confusion and disagreement between the Gospel writers over the account of the crucifixion and resurrection? Is it fair to say that nobody was entirely sure of what actually happened?

It may appear that there is a lot of confusion. A skeptical mind will have much confusion. An honest mind will even have some until he looks closely at the accounts. Even then there may be some things a person might not understand because we do not have every last detail, of all that happened, to all the people involved, at every moment, during these events. (If you and I were to write down all that happened at the coronation of a king, for example. And we had to limit it between 500 to 1000 words, we would have different accounts although not contradictory. Also, we could not say that my account was more important in content than your account or visa versa.)

57. The author of Mark asserts that Jesus was taken up to Heaven and sat on the right of God (Mark 16:19). This remark could only come from Jesus himself or an eyewitness account. Since it was not Jesus who reported it, does that mean that the eyewitness actually went to Heaven and saw Jesus sitting at the right side of God? If so, was that person also taken to Heaven and brought back to report the incident?

These are good questions using good logic. There are two verses in scripture that help provide an answer. 2 Peter 1:20-21 says, "Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation. For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit." This is the Spirit that Jesus himself speaks of in John 14:26, "But the Counsellor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you." This also agrees with 2 Timothy 3:16, "All Scripture is God-breached and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness," The answer is that the Holy Spirit who is referred to in all these verses was the one who told them about this event. The fact that this actually happened is testified by Stephen in Acts 7:56, " 'Look,' he said, 'I see heaven open and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God.' "

58. The disciples are said to have witnessed the Ascension (Mark 16:19), Luke 24:50). This must have been the most incredible experience of their lives. Why is it that not one of them wrote a single word concerning it afterwards? Why is it that the only accounts related are by others who had no direct knowledge of the incident?

I don't know why it was only Mark and Luke who recorded the ascension. Yet we do know that Luke received his information from eye-witnesses by what he states in Luke 1:1-4. The apostle Paul also speaks of this event. We know that he spent 3 years in the desert being taught by Jesus Christ himself.(Galatians 1)The following verses will provide further study: 1 Timothy 3:16, Mark 16:19, Luke 9:51, Luke 24:51, Acts 1:2, Acts 1:11, Ephesians 4:8, Ephesians 4:10, Acts 2:33-36, Romans 8:34, Colossians 3:1, and Hebrews 10:12.

59. In the story of Jesus's birth, it is said that a star led the Three Wise Men to Jesus's birthplace. Is it not against the Laws of Nature for a star to travel in this way? Can the phenomenon be reconciled with our present day knowledge of astronomy?

The answer to this question is, "Is God held by the Laws of Nature or does he hold the Laws of Nature." If we disregard the testimony of all things that are contrary to the Laws of Nature, then we would have to disregard the creation of the world and the virgin birth of Jesus, the Messiah.

60. If Jesus's central message was that of Trinity (a concept alien to the Old Testament), why did he not elaborate on the subject to explain the interrelationships clearly? Why did he leave it to Paul to explain?

First, it is a myth to say that Paul spoke more of the tri-unity of God than Jesus did. Jesus spoke a lot about his relation with the Father and the Spirit. (See John 5-17) We must consider the role of each. Jesus came to prove who he was. In John 10:37-38 he says, "Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father." If people did not believe who he said he was, he wasn't bothered, because he knew who he was and he knew his works would prove it. He understands that people need time to sort these things out. Being a Master Teacher, he took one step at a time.

Paul, however, took all of the events of Christ's life and his message and put them together for people to understand. Paul's message did not contradict Jesus' message, Jesus was speaking in the midst of these events, Paul spoke after the events. Even the disciples did not fully understand what Jesus was trying to say to them until after the crucifixion and resurrection.

61. Is it credible to say that if all the acts of Jesus in his life-time were transcribed on paper, the world could not hold the books which would be written? (John 21:25). Is it merely an exaggeration? If so, what other exaggerations exist?

John 21:25 is not an exaggeration. It is meant to be a figure of speech. Figures of speech are not considered as exaggerations but as acceptable communication.

62. If it is accepted, as it is by most scholars, that there have been additions, alternations and amendments to the original Gospels, what confidence can a reader have that a particular remark attributed to Jesus was not inserted later as an expression of the Christian faith at that time?

This is a very good question. If a scholar is a true scholar, he will check what is written about Jesus in the Gospels with what is prophesied of him in the Old Testament, meaning the books that God revealed first, namely the Taurat, Zabur and the Prophets. Once this is done thoroughly, many questions will be answered and much will come to light.

63. If Jesus was God, why did he repeatedly emphasize the importance of the unity of God? For example:

(a) Hear O Israel the first commandment is that Thy God is One and there is none other than He (Mark 12:28, 32, Matthew 22:34-40)

(b) I can do nothing on my authority, as I hear, I judge and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me. (John 5:30, 31)

Jesus, being a true prophet of God, knew that God could dwell in a human body. The unity of God does not contradict the fact that Jesus was God; they are in perfect harmony. The point where most people stumble is that they cannot believe that Jesus was God and man. God always was, is and will be. At a point in time he chose to enter the body of a baby who was born, lived, died and was resurrected. While God was in Jesus Christ, he had full power and glory in the universe. However, in Jesus Christ the power and glory were limited for a time, for a special purpose. This is explained in the Bible in Philippians 2:5-11.

64. The Old Testament prophesied the coming of a 'Messiah'. This Messiah was never conceived as a divine figure. How did a prophetic figure become converted into a divine being?

I take the statement, "This Messiah was never conceived as a divine figure." to mean "nobody ever believed that he was prophesied as a divine being." This is not true. The Messiah which was prophesied, was indeed considered as a divine figure. This Messiah was promised as coming through the line of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Judah, Jesse, and David.(Genesis 12:2-3; 21:12; 26:3-5; 28:13,14; 49:10; Numbers 24:17,19; Psalm 89 and 132) Then in Isaiah 49:5-7 and in Jeremiah 23:5-6 it is clear that God Almighty would be formed in a womb by God Almighty, and will be called "The LORD our Righteousness." Note in Psalm 110 that the LORD (Jehovah)says to David's LORD, "Sit at my right hand. . . ." The statements that follow are statements made both in the Old Testament and New Testament about the Messiah.

65. If Jesus was claiming divinity, why did he place himself on an equal footing with everyone else? My Father and your Father, My God and your God. (John 20:27)

Again the fact of the matter is that Jesus claimed both humanity and deity at the same time. Messiah means "anointed one." The Jews were expecting someone anointed by God, but to what extend he was to be anointed they didn't fully realise. As a man Jesus had the full anointing of God, yet it was limited in its demonstration.

66. If Jesus was God, why did he forbid the reference of divinity to himself: Why call me good? Only God is good. (Matthew 19:16-17)

Did he forbid the reference of divinity to himself? If we read closely we will see the situation.

A rich, self-righteous man has come to Jesus and asks Jesus what good thing he must do to have eternal life. He seems to be wanting to boast of his good deeds and to get Jesus' stamp of approval. Therefore, Jesus said things that would turn his thoughts toward God. We cannot be good in God's eyes without submitting to God. We cannot truly submit to God without recognising that God has sent Jesus Christ. If God sent him, he cannot be a true prophet unless all he speaks from God is true.

67. If Jesus was claiming divinity, why did he liken himself to the Judges and Prophets of the Old Testament who had also been called gods, but in a metaphorical sense? (John 10:34-36, Psalms 82:6). If Jesus was applying the term 'Son of God' in a literal sense, why would he give this reference from the Old Testament which was clearly referring to people as sons in a metaphorical sense?

First we must look at the context. In Psalm 82:6 "gods" refers to earthly rulers. They are referred to as "gods" with a small "g." But it is clear that they were not "Gods" because they died like mere men. Second, we must look carefully at the meaning of the phrase "son of God." "Son of" can mean all or some of the following: a special relationship, common characteristics and origin. It can be used in the physical sense or a metaphorical and spiritual sense. The Bible uses the term "son of God" in a number of places and in a number of ways:

Adam -- Luke 3:38

Cyrus --Isaiah 45:1

Rulers --Psalm 82:6

Jesus Christ --Mark 1:11, Luke 1:35, Luke 22:70, John 3:16

Believers --John 1:12

So what is the meaning of all of this. First we must make sure we understand the questions. The question refers to a "literal" sense. There are two "literal" senses. One is a physical sense; the other is a spiritual sense. Then there is also a metaphorical sense. What Jesus is saying is that, those who were called sons of God in Psalm 82:6 were said to be rulers who defended the unjust and showed favouritism to the wicked. God called them "gods" because he used them to accomplish his purpose, but not because they displayed his character or were sent from him. However, the Jews tried to hurt Jesus Christ, who was called God's Son, because he was sent from God . If we look back at the references above about Jesus Christ, we see a difference in the two titles. Jesus Christ was called the Son of God. He was not one of many but was unique, like no other. So, the fact of the matter is that Jesus did not liken himself to those who had been called gods in this passage. He put himself above them which was in agreement with what the angel Gabriel said in Luke 1:35 and with what God himself said in Mark 1:11.

68. Why should Jesus say he could do nothing of his own authority, if he was God? (John 5:30)

First we must realise that Jesus was both God and man. But he was not on earth to bring glory to his humanity, but to God. Most people did not believe him to be God, because when they looked at him, they only saw a man, so he spoke to them in truth, but also in terms that related to life. He wanted to communicate to the people that he did not have a political, military or merely humanitarian mission, but that he had a spiritual mission. His authority as a man came from God!

69. If Jesus was God, why did he not know who had touched him? (Mark 5:30)

The passage never says that he did not know who touched him. He asked who touched him. So why is this? The answer is not given here, but from other passages it is clear that a public confession is important. For the sake of the woman and the crowd, he asked this question.

70. If Jesus was God, why did he not know what was going to happen on the Day of Judgment? But of that day or that Hour no one knows, not even the Angels in Heaven, not the Son but only the Father. (Mark 13:32)

This is probably on of the most difficult questions in all of scripture. The best thing to do is to read through John chapter 5 carefully. With this understanding of the relationship between God the Father and Jesus Christ, we realise that all of the fullness of God dwelt in him. However the will and knowledge of God was revealed to his humanity when needed. Since the Day of Judgment had not occurred yet, the knowledge was not needed. We may never fully understand in this life why God did it this way, but we do know God's care for us. He wants us to realise that Jesus Christ is not claiming to be a separate god apart from the One True God, but is in agreement with the One True God.

71. If Jesus was God, why would he say that he was sent by God? (John 6:29)

Again, this question has to do with his relationship with God the Father. He was God and man. God sent his Spirit to live fully in a human body. The body was completely powerless to fulfill the will of God without the Spirit of God which lived in it.

72. If Jesus was God, what need did he have to pray? (Mark 1:35, Luke 5:16)

The reality was that the man Jesus relied totally on the Spirit of God within him to accomplish the will of God the Father. He was a man and he was here on earth as an example to man. Therefore he needed to pray. Even today he intercedes before God the Father on behalf of those who believe on him as the only mediator between God and man.

73. If Jesus was God, why would he curse a fig tree when it had no fruit on it particularly as it was not the season for its bearing fruit? (Mark 11:12-14, Matthew 21:18-19)

On this question I have chosen to refer to two sources which I will quote. The first is from Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties by Gleason L. Archer, p. 335. He states,

The fig tree had produced its foliage without having put forth its fruit--which in that climate normally precedes the full leafage itself. (Mark 11:13 observes that it was not the regular season for the production of figs, but apparently this particular tree had gone into full foliage without developing any figs at all.)

The second source is Strange Scriptures that Perplex the Western Mind, by Barbara M. Bowen, p. 25.

One strange thing about the fig tree is that the fruit appears before the leaves. If the first fruit did not appear, there would be no other figs on the tree.

Christ and the disciples were passing and looked for some of the small but sweet first fruit. It was a tree with leaves, it looked well and useful, but it was a useless tree, and not only that, it led the passerby to believe it was a good tree, when it was of no value.

It was a type of profession with productiveness. Our Lord could not endure hypocrisy in anyone or anything, and condemned it more than any other sin. Here Christ is giving His disciples an illustration they would not easily forget.

74. When Zebedee asked that his two sons might sit on the right and left of Jesus, why did Jesus say that the power was not with him but only with God? (Matthew 20:23)

First of all, it was not Zebedee but the mother of Zebedee's sons who asked Jesus this question. Again, this question takes a careful reading of what God has revealed to us about the relationship of God the Father and Jesus Christ. The scripture does not say he didn't have the power to do it, but that it was not his to give. We must also understand that most people thought he was about to set an earthly kingdom to free them from the Romans. Again he turns their minds to a heavenly kingdom.

75. If Jesus was divine, why did he clearly refer to himself as a man (John 8:39-40) and separate himself from God in describing the relationship 'The only true God and Jesus Christ' (John 17:3)?

He definitely was a man and he definitely was God. In John 17:3 he is not separating himself from God. This is made clear in verse five.

76. If Jesus was God and therefore omniscient, why did he allow himself to be tricked by Judas?

He was betrayed but never tricked. He allowed himself to be betrayed because he came to earth to die for those who would put there trust in him as the payment for their sin, so that God could live in them. This is explained hundreds of years before in the prophecies in Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53.

77. If Jesus was God, why did he die on the cross in a matter of a few hours when ordinary mortals usually lasted several days? If Jesus was weakened by bearing the sins of the whole world, why should he say that he was able to redeem the sins of the world?

Even though Jesus was God, we must remember that he had a human body. (See Philippians 2:5-13) We must also remember that he had been kept awake all night and subjected to whipping and other physical abuse before his crucifixion. Add to that the fact that he bore the sins of the world and we can see why he died quickly. His death was the process through which he could offer salvation to the world, but his resurrection gave redemption and showed victory over sin.

78. Jesus is reported to have said: He who receives you receives me, and he who receives me receives him who sent me (Matthew 10:40, Luke 10:16, John 12:44). Who sent Jesus if he himself was God?

If we say that God couldn't have sent Jesus if Jesus was God, then we have chosen to limit God in opposition to what he has revealled about himself. He is One God yet not limited in space, except by his choosing.

79. According to Christian tradition, Jesus was in hell for three days after his death. How does one reconcile this with Jesus's remarks on the cross to one of those crucified with him that today you will be with me in Paradise. (Luke 23:43)

We should not base our beliefs on "Christian tradition," but on the Word of God in the Bible. The verses that this "tradition" is built upon is taken from I Peter 3:18-22. It is evident that Jesus went to preach to those who rejected God and died, but it does not give a time frame when or how long he did this.

 80. If Jesus believed in and advocated the concept of original sin (i.e. that all children are born sinful) why did he say that unless a man received the Kingdom of Heavens as a child he would not enter it? (Mark 10:4-15). Why should he go to bless them instead of purifying them by baptism if that is what is required before a child can be cleansed of original sin?

What is in view here is the faith of a little child. He is trusting and ready to imitate those around him. If a child was already in the kingdom of heaven when he was born, he would not need to receive it. Baptism by water is not what cleanses a person of sin. Only baptism of the Spirit of God will cleanse from sin.

81. Forgiveness is a cornerstone of Christian belief (Matthew 5:38-40). Is forgiveness the appropriate action in all instances? If so, would it mean that there could be no penal system under the Christian Law for punishing offenders?

Forgiveness is very important because it is in the character of God. Yet God has given to governments the right to govern justly. This means that people be treated fairly and also that fair punishments be given. (See Romans 13:1-7) The faith that Jesus taught trusts in God and not in governments. That faith is able to be lived out even under governments that are opposed to God because God is dwelling in his followers and causing right attitudes and actions toward those around, even to enemies. The Bible teaches that each government on this earth is allowed by God and that they are here to govern the people. The attitude of a servant toward his master is given in 1 Peter 2:18-25. This is the same attitude that a Christian needs to have toward government.

82. If Jesus's teaching was intended for the entire world as a complete code for all mankind, why should Jesus confine it to one section of people -- the Jews only? (Matthew 10:5-6, Matthew 15:24)

Jesus' first mission was to the "lost sheep of the house of Israel as mentioned in Matthew 10:5-6 and Matthew 15:24. Notice in Matthew 15:24 that after saying these very words Jesus proceeded to heal the Gentile woman. Also look up Matthew 4:15-16, Matthew 10:18, Luke 2:32 and John 3:16. These references clearly state that Jesus was sent to the Gentiles. So how do we reconcile these two? Jesus' first responsibility was to the Jews and then to the Gentiles. This is clear as one read the Gospels carefully.

83. If Jesus's teaching ended in Palestine, why is it that there are so many remarkable similarities between the reported life histories of Jesus and Buddha? These similarities include:

(Note: Buddha lived approximately five hundred years before Jesus.)

Did Buddha predict his own death and resurrection and then die and rise from the dead?

84. If Jesus meant that he was literally the son of God, why should he confuse the issue by frequently referring to himself as The Son of Man a term from the Old Testament which did not imply divinity since the Son of Man (as understood in the Old Testament) was never a divine being?

Son of Man refers to Jesus' manhood. Son of God refers to Jesus' spiritual nature and origin. This is the core message of God to man. The Messiah was prophesied to be both. (Jeremiah 23:5-6, Isaiah 9:6-7, Isaiah 11:1-10) If Jesus was not both, he could never be our mediator. Without a mediator, we are still separated from God.

85. If the Trinity existed since the beginning of time, were the Jews misled by all the prophets before Jesus in being told to believe in the Unity of God? If the Jews were not spiritually advanced to understand the complex concept of the Trinity, does that apply to the prophets also?

The unity of God does not contradict the plurality of God. No, the Jews were not misled. On a number of occasions God appeared to people in bodily form before Jesus Christ was born. See the following references: Genesis 16:7-14; Genesis 22:11-18; Genesis 31:11-13; Exodus 3:2 - 4:12; Exodus 14-19, 23:21, 32:34; Numbers 22:22-35; Judges 6:11-24; Judges 13:2-24; Zechariah 3:1ff. Other references to this person before Jesus Christ include Psalm 2:7; Genesis 19:24; Genesis 18:13ff, 17-20, 33; Hosea 1:7; Psalm 45:6; Genesis 1:26.

It wasn't that the Jews were not spiritually advanced; it simply was not the time yet to reveal the trinity more fully.

 

86. Why was it necessary for Jesus to die physically so that man could attain salvation? What significance does physical death have with spiritual life?

It was necessary for Jesus to die physically so that man could attain salvation because God declared it to be that way. Physical death is the punishment that God gave to Adam. "And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, 'Of every tree of the garden you may freely eat; but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die."(Genesis 2:16-17) It is physical death that marks the final judgment. "And as it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment,"(Hebrews 9:27) Physical death is a visible sign of a spiritual judgment.

87. According to the Doctrine of Atonement, the sins of the guilty are redeemed by the death of Jesus. Jesus was sinless. How can the sins of the guilty be borne by the death of an innocent man? Is it divine justice to punish an innocent person for the crimes committed by the guilty?

1 Peter 2:24 says, "He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed." This agrees with Isaiah 53:5-6, "But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was upon him, and by his wounds we are healed. We all, like sheep, have gone astray, each of us has turned to his own way; and the LORD has laid on him the iniquity of us all." Jesus was sinless, but on the cross, he took our sin upon himself. God was just because he was punishing our sin.

88. If Jesus believed in the Doctrine of Atonement, why would he tell his disciples that if they forgave others, God would forgive them (Matthew 6:14, 15)? If Atonement forgives all sins, what further need is there to seek the forgiveness of others?

The word for forgiveness in the Greek is afihmi. It is translated "let, leave, let have, send away, forgive, allow, have omitted, have forsaken, let be." The English prefix, "for" means "completely," or "to the point of exhaustion." We all want to be given the leniency to sin without the full punishment. In fact if we weren't given that leniency to sin without the just punishment, we would all be forever damned to hell. That is what is being referred to in Matthew 6:14-15. If we do not forgive others, that shows that we have not received forgiveness from God. Therefore God will not forgive us. This agrees with 1 John 4:8, 11-12 which says, "Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. Dear friends, since God so loved us, we also ought to love one another. No-one has ever seen God; but if we love one another, God lives in us and his love is made perfect in us." Compare this with what 1 Corinthians 13:4-8 says about what true love is. The Bible also says, "Brothers, do not slander one another. Anyone who speaks against his brother or judges him speaks against the law and judges it. When you judge the law, you are not keeping it, but sitting in judgment on it. There is only one Lawgiver and Judge, the one who is able to save and destroy. But you--who are you to judge your neighbour." (James 4:11-12) When we fail to forgive others, we are showing that we have not received forgiveness from God, because we are actually setting ourselves above God.

The atonement reconciles us to God. But when we sin we still offend others around us. Since we are to love them, we need to show our love by restoring relationships with them and obtaining their forgiveness. If we don't do this, we can't claim to know God's love toward us.

The Atonement justifies us. That means that we are declared righteous, even though we have sinned. However, we still continue to sin. God doesn't just ignore this. He says in Hebrews 12:4-11 that he disciplines and punishes those he loves, because in the end it produces righteousness and peace. These honour God because they show his nature in a wicked world.

89. If, as according to Paul, man can do nothing by himself to attain salvation (Romans 3:24, 3:28, 9:11, 9:16, Galations 2:16), what is the point of obeying the commandments? (Mark 10:17-19, Luke 10:25, Matthew 19:16-20)

The law (commandments) is God's standard for human beings. It has two purposes, to show us God's standard, and to show us our inability to keep God's standard. When we know the standard, we realize how far short we fall of it. James 2:10 says, "For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it." Why is this? Jesus himself answered this when he said that the greatest commandment is to love God with all your heart and the second greatest commandment is to love your neighbour as yourself. (Mark 12:28-31) So where does this leave us? It leaves us in a desperately hopeless situation. Having realised this, we must realise that we need a new spirit. To have this new spirit we must admit our inability to keep God's laws perfectly and trust in God's provision for sin--Jesus Christ. He has borne our sin and was declared acceptable by God. If we trust him, he will put a new spirit inside of us. This new spirit helps us to obey God. (Philippians 2:13)

90. If Atonement forgives all sins, why did Jesus say that blasphemy against the Holy Spirit would not be forgiven? (Matthew 12:31) Is there a distinction between forgivable and unforgivable sins? If so, how does one distinguish between the two?

The atonement in itself does not save us from sin. It must be united with faith. Faith comes from hearing God's word and admitting it is right about our sin and God's sacrifice for sin--Jesus Christ. The sin of blasphemy is to claim to be equal with or above God. When we fail to see our sin as God sees it, and when we fail to believe on God's provision for sin, we are claiming to be greater than God. No one can believe these things except by the Spirit of God. As long as we are alive we have the chance to believe. If we refuse to believe these things, when we die we will be judged for our unbelief and blasphemy.

Every sin is forgivable until we die. When we die, we either stand forgiven because of our faith, or condemned because of our refusal to believe that Jesus Christ could save us from the consequences of our sin. The way to distinguish between the two is to ask yourself if you believe what the Bible says about Jesus Christ.

91. If it is Jesus's death which forgive sins, and not any personal effort on the part of the sinner (such as carrying out good works, restraining from evil habits, etc.), what motive is there for a person to avoid sin and evil conduct?

When we have experienced forgiveness from God, we have experienced his love. When we have experienced his love, we are able to love him in return and love those around us. See the following references: 1 Thessalonians 1:3; 1 Thessalonians 4:9; 1 Thessalonians 5:8; 2 Thessalonians 1:3; 2 Timothy 1:7; 1 John 3:3; 1 John 4:7; 1 John 5:3.

92. If Jesus redeemed the sins of the world by his crucifixion, that could only atone for the sins of the world up to that point. What about sins after the crucifixion? If it also covers later sins, how does one reconcile that with Paul's remark that Jesus's sacrifice is for earlier sins and he cannot be crucified a second time (Hebrews 10:26, 66)

Please check the references in the question. These do not address the questions asked. The Bible does say in Hebrews 9:15 and Romans 3:25 that Jesus Christ died for the sins of those who died under the old covenant. It does not say that he just died for those, though. It says that he died once, but continues to save because he continues to live. See the following references: Romans 6:10; Hebrews 7:27; Hebrews 9:12; Hebrews 10:10; 1 Peter 3:18.

93. If belief in the resurrection and atonement is essential, how was it that Jesus forgave the sins of an adulteress even though she did not believe in him nor in his redemption? (Matthew 8:1-11)

The account of the sinful woman that Jesus forgave is found in Luke 7:36-50. When we look back into the Old Testament we see that man was saved by his faith in the promises of God. Genesis 15:6 says, "Abram believed the LORD, and he credited it to him as righteousness." A careful study of righteousness that saves, shows us that it is accompanied with humility, regard for the majesty of the LORD, obedience and trust in God. The result of this righteousness is immortality and peace. This woman met these qualifications.

94. Jesus taught his disciples to pray during his lifetime. He taught them also to pray after his death (Matthew 6:9-15). What further need is there to pray if Atonement forgives all sins?

Let's ask another question. Since Jesus was perfect, without sin, why would he pray to God? The atonement not only cancels out the debt we owe to God (forgiveness), but it also allows those who admit their sin and trust in God to receive God's Holy Spirit. This Spirit is the power within that changes the heart so that we do not sin. Even though a person might have the Holy Spirit within him, he still has the ability to sin. So this person has the responsibility to yield to the urgings of God's Holy Spirit within him. The expression of need and the submission to God is expressed by prayer.

95. Paul was to feature as a major teacher and expounder of Jesus's message. Why is there no reference, directly or indirectly, by Jesus to his work? Jesus refers to true and false prophets coming after him as well as the Spirit of Truth but why no reference to Paul?

This is an important question. First we must recognize that the only two prophets who were prophesied in the Old Testament were John the Baptist and Jesus Christ. When John the Baptist was prophesied it was mentioned that he would be a forerunner of the Messiah. If we expect Paul to be prophesied by Christ, then why wasn't Moses prophesied by Abraham, or David by Moses, or Isaiah by Moses. These men had as much influence as Paul. So we must accept that God in his sovereignty did not choose to prophesy concerning Paul.

However the question remains, How do we know if Paul was a true prophet of God? Wasn't it to Jesus' disciples that Jesus promised that the Spirit of God would bring back to their remembrance all that he had said to them? Yes it was! So now what about Paul? Let's take a look at what Scripture says about this. First, he humbly acknowledges that he was called by Jesus Christ and given revelation by Jesus Christ. When the apostles heard the message that he preached, they agreed with it and encouraged him to continue.(Galatians 1:11-2:10) Second, Peter himself recognised that what Paul wrote was wisdom from God. (2 Peter 3:15)

96. If Paul's teaching was based on Jesus's words, why is not one word based on Jesus's parables, similitudes or the teachings of the Sermon on the Mount?

The teaching of Paul is in full agreement with the teachings of Jesus! To say otherwise is to express one's ignorance of the Bible. The reason why it may seem to be different is that Jesus was teaching people before his crucifixion and resurrection. Paul was teaching or writing to people after Jesus' ministry on earth.

A full treatment of this would take many pages. What I would suggest is to read through the Sermon on the Mount. (Matthew 5-7) Divide a piece of paper into two columns. In one column note the main topics of the Sermon on the Mount. Write down the main teachings under each topic. Then read through the writings of Paul(Romans, 1 and 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, 1 and 2 Thessalonians, 1 and 2 Timothy, Titus, Philemon and Hebrews). In the second column write down references where these teachings are found in the writings of Paul. It would also be helpful to read through the Acts of the Apostles and read Paul's sermons.

97. Jesus was raised as a Jew. Accordingly, he was circumcised, fasted, abstained from the flesh of swine and prayed. It was also repeatedly said that he had not come to change the Law of Moses (Matthew 5:17). By what authority, therefore, did Paul abolish all these practices? What indication did Jesus give that after his death these practices would no longer be necessary?

Read Mark 7:1-23, especially verses 18 and 19,

"Are you so dull?" he asked. "Don't you see that nothing that enters a man from the outside can make him 'unclean'? For it doesn't go into his heart but into his stomach, and then out of his body." (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods "clean".)

Also read Matthew 15:1-20 and Luke 11:37-54. Then read Acts 10-11:18. The vision that Peter had was of unclean animals that he was asked to eat. This was equated with eating with uncircumcised men (men who did not follow the Jewish laws). What made them unclean anyway? Were not they considered unclean partly because of what they ate? The answer is yes. So we see here that Jesus and Peter stated that it was not what a person ate that caused him to be right with God.

Let me add that there are many things that are harmful to our bodies and it is best to avoid these things. Eating a lot of pork is harmful to some people; eating a lot of ghee is harmful to some people; eating food with lots of red pepper is harmful to some people; some people are allergic to mushrooms, milk, wheat, etc., but in and of themselves they do not cause us to be accepted or rejected by God. However, if our conscience is hurt by eating a certain food, it is wrong for us.

For Paul's main teaching on this read Romans 14:13-23. Does this disagree with what Jesus taught? Absolutely not. So Paul said these things on the authority of the teachings of Christ. Also see 1 Corinthians 6:12-13a and chapter 8.

The same principle applies to circumcision. First let's look at the purpose of circumcision given to Abraham. "You are to undergo circumcision, and it will be the sign of the covenant between me and you." Paul points out in Romans 4:1-12 that circumcision did not make Abraham right with God. This agrees with Genesis 15:6. Jesus never endorsed nor condemned circumcision.

Regarding prayer and fasting, Paul never abolished these.

98. If salvation can only be attained by belief in Jesus's death and resurrection, why is there no reference to it whatsoever in the two greatest summaries of Jesus's teachings: The Sermon on the Mount and the Lord's Prayer?

The Sermon on the Mount and the Lord's prayer are not summaries of the Lord's teaching. The Sermon on the Mount is an address that he gave at one particular time. This was at the beginning of his earthly ministry and it was not time yet to speak of his death and resurrection. The Lord's prayer is a prayer that he taught his disciples at their request. Both of these focus on the attitude of one's heart and the relationship between God and man. Without a proper view of the seriousness of one's own sin and the shame he has caused God, along with a reverence for and submission to God, no one will be able to be saved. These are the important matters that need to be understood before a person can have salvation.

99. All prophets live their lives as examples for others. If salvation is only through belief in the Doctrine of Atonement - and that matters more than anything else - why was it necessary for Jesus to demonstrate all the numerous acts of kindness, compassion, forgiveness, healing, mercy, love of his enemies, the condemnation of empty ritual, etc.? If all these actions were not the central message of Jesus, is it not true that the majority of his works which comprise the main parts of the Gospels are rendered utterly irrelevant?

The reason why Jesus had to demonstrate all the numerous acts of kindness, compassion, forgiveness, healing, mercy, love of his enemies, the condemnation of empty ritual, etc. was for two reasons. First that people would realise what God's holy standard is, so they would not remain in their pride of their own good deeds, and second that they would recognize that Jesus was from God. Without understanding these two facts, no one will ever have salvation.

100. All prophets live their lives as examples for others. If salvation is only through belief in the Doctrine of Atonement - and that matters more than anything else - why was it necessary for Jesus to demonstrate all the numerous acts of kindness, compassion, forgiveness, healing, mercy, love of his enemies, the condemnation of empty ritual, etc.? If all these actions were not the central message of Jesus, is it not true that the majority of his works which comprise the main parts of the Gospels are rendered utterly irrelevant?

There is no historical or religious record of the same prophet returning to this world. However, we must realise that Jesus was more than a prophet. He remains alive today at the right hand of the Father. Jesus Christ himself will return. His return is prophesied so many times and no time is there any indication that someone else or even someone like him will return instead of him.

The purpose for the prophecy of Elijah coming was to let people know the nature of the work that would be done. The angel Gabriel makes it very clear in Luke 1:17 that John the Baptist would come in the spirit and power of Elijah. When John the Baptist came, it was the message that was important, when Jesus Christ comes again it is the person that is important. He has proved himself to be the only person that can provide salvation for man (1 Timothy 2:5) and judge the earth righteously. (Matthew 25:31-46; John 5:24-30; Revelation 19:11-13; Acts 17:31)

101. Jesus prophesied that there would be true and false prophets in the future (Matthew 7:15-20). We know that there have been false prophets but, why, according to Christian tradition, have there not been any true prophets? Were they all false? If no true prophet was to appear, why did Jesus make this prophecy?

Matthew 7:15-20 does not mention true prophets, it only mentions false prophets. However the New Testament does refer to true prophets. These prophets reiterated the gospel of Jesus Christ, or explained by God's wisdom how it should be applied. These prophets were also referred to as apostles and teachers. Their message never disagreed with the message that Jesus brought. Some references of true prophets are as follows: Matthew 23:34; Acts 11:27;13:1;15:32;21:10; 1 Corinthians 12:28.

Note: All quotations in the questions are from the Revised Standard Version.
Questions Copyright 1993.

All scripture quotations in the answers are taken from the HOLY BIBLE,
NIVÒ CopyrightÓ 1973, 1978, 1984
by IBS. All rights reserved.

Answers Copyright 2001

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